Science Quiz / SN1 Exam 2

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Can you name the SN1 Exam 2?

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In general, drugs that are not clear are not injected where?
Anesthetic premeds reduce the dose of ______ ________
Anesthetic premeds help with a smooth ______
name an anticholinergic premed
Which lasts a shorter amount of time (half as long)? glycopyrrolate or atropine
major effects of anticholinergics: increased ____ ____ and decreased ___
a major side effect of anticholinergics is _______
Phenothiazine premedication drug name
Major effect of acepromazine:
name one major side effect of acepromazine:
how long does acepromazine last? __-__ hours
Avoid using _____ in patients with history of seizures, hypotension, dehydration
Acepromazine lasts longer in patients with _____ disease and in _____ patients.
What are the two benzodiazepine premeds?
The major effect of benzodiazepine premeds is:
This premed drug class is 'safe', producing little sedation except in geriatrics, making it good for high risk patients
Diazepam only mixes with _____
Alpha-2 Agonist premeds include Detomidine, Romifidine, Medetomide, _____, and _____
Major effects of alpha-2 agonist premeds are muscle relaxation, ______, and ______
Major side effects of alpha-2 agonist premeds:
This class of premeds should only be used in young, healthy animals and avoided in old, diabetic, pregnant, pediatric, and sick patients
Opioid premed drugs include Buprenorphine, Fentonyl, _____, and ______
Major effects of opioid premeds: ____ and ____
Side effects of opioid premeds include ______ and _____ depression
Name the two ultra-short acting barbiturate induction agents
conciousness to unconciousness is a major effect of what two induction agent drug classes? (not including miscellaneous)
side effects of barbiturate induction agents include cardiac depression, ____, and ______
This class of induction agents will cause tissue sloughing if perivascular
Cyclohexamine induction agents: [two]
tiletamine is only available combined with ______ in a drug known as _____
cyclohexamine induction agents major effects include increased ____ and ____
This induction agent drug class causes emergence delirium as a side effect
cyclohexamine induction agents cause ______ and increased ______
Cyclohexamine induction agents cause ______ muscle tone in cats ___
this miscellaneous class induction agent is a muscle relaxant and, when used alone, leaves the animal concious
This drug (not a barbiturate!!) causes tissue slough if perivacular
Milky white induction drug that is only good for 6 hours after opening due to bacterial growth potential
Major side effects of propofol include cardiac depression and _____
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name one topical anesthetic
name the opiod epidural
these cause respiratory arrest if too large of dose or too far cranial
TIVA stands for:
The most common TIVA drug used is:
TIVA by what moderates and slows down changes in depth by avoiding sudden infusion of large amounts of drug
TIVA by what increases depth rapidly, but if patient gets too deep the only thing that can be done is supportive care until drug is metabolized
Best control of TIVA anesthetic depth is what? [IV bolus or CRI]
When TIVA is discontinued, how many minutes does it take the patient to recover?
Most premeds take effect in ___ to ___ minutes
mask induction is used in ____ _____ patients
chamber induction is used in ______, ______, or difficult to handle patients
IM induction is used in young _____, young ______, and ______
Drugs characterized by their ability to produce unconciousness when given alone but do not provide all effects of anesthesia such as analgesia and muscle relaxation
another name for lipid solubility of barbiturates
solubility of short acting barbiturates [high, medium, low]
solubility of long acting barbiturates [high, medium, low]
solubility of ultra short acting barbiturates [high, medium, low]
onset of action of ultra short acting barbiturates [fast, slow, slowest] and where it acts [brain, liver, kidneys]
onset of action of short acting barbiturates [fast, slow, slowest] and where it acts [brain, liver, kidneys]
onset of action of long acting barbiturates [fast, slow, slowest] and where it acts [brain, liver, kidneys]
which is metabolized more quickly, methohexital or thiopental?
sterile ____, normal _____, and 5% ______ can be used to reconstitute thiopental powder
2 or 2.5% concentration thiopental should be used in _____ animals
___ % concentration thiopental should be used in large animals
thiopental shelf life if refrigerated
thiopental shelf life at room temp
______ or diazepam given just prior to thiopental reduces the incidence of arrhythmias
methohexital when reconstituted can be stored at room temp for _____
a state in which a patient does not respond to external stimuli and has muscle rigidity in varying degrees
tiletamine-zolazepam may result in prolonged recoveries (5 hrs after IM) in cats and should only be used in patients with ASA physical status classes of ___ and greater
______ is a good induction choice for patients with high risk such as brain trauma or undergoing brain surgery due to it's minimal effect on cardiovascular and respiratory systems
Guaifenesin, ketamine, and xylazine given together are known as '_____ ____'
bind to and stimulate tissue receptors
bind to but do not stimulate receptors
bind to and partially stimulate receptors
bind to more than one receptor type and simultaneously stimulate at least one and block and least one
any drug used to induce a loss of sensation with or without unconciousness
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drug that is not a true anesthetic but that is used during anesthesia to produce other desired effects such as sedation, muscle relaxation, analgesia, reversal, and PSN blockade
This route has a rapid onset (seconds to a few minutes) with short duration
This route has a medium onset (15-20 minutes) with a medium duration
This route has a long onset and long duration
term for drug used to prevent bradycardia and increase salivary secretions from the PSN system
primary neurotransmitter for the parasympathetic nervous system
Acetylcholine is blocked by anticholinergics at the __________ receptors in target organs
stimulation of this parasympathetic nerve results in effects similar to what would occur when a patient is at rest
Administering anticholinergic premeds 20-30 minutes prior to anesthetic induction allows for ____ ______
Atropine is ideal in emergencies because the onset of action is ~ ____ and peak effect is ~______ after injection
opthalmic ointment should be applied every ___
this reduces anxiety
this causes a decrease in mental activity and causes sleepiness
Diazepam should not be given IM because it _____
what do you use to give diazepam and an agent it is not compatible with IV?
Alpha-2 agonist decrease the neurotransmitter _________
The sns has three types of receptors, alpha, beta, and __________
most opioids act for 30 minutes to __ hours, with the exception of buprenorphine and morphine which last __-__ hours
state of profound sedation and analgesia induced by simultaneous administration of an opioid and a tranquilizer
Alpha 2 antagonists include yohimbine, _____, and _______
yohimbine reverses ______
tolazoline reverses _______
atipamezole reverses ______
This alpha 2 antagonist has a ratio of 1:10
This alpha 2 antagonist has a ratio of 10:1
_____ agonists stimulate primarily the mu and kappa receptors, provide best relief for moderate and severe pain
_____ agonists partiaaly stimulate opioid receptors
agonist-antagonists do not stimulate __ receptors
bind to but do not stimulate mu and kappa receptors, 'reversal agents'
normal canine HR under anesthesia
normal feline HR under anesthesia
normal respiratory rate for cats and dogs under anesthesia
A 4x4 gauze holds how much blood in mls?
time between discontinuation of anesthesia and the ability of the animal to remain sternal without help
the width of the cuff using a doppler should be __-__% of the leg circumference
this instrument measures the amount of CO2 that is in the inhaled and exhaled breath
this device detects temperature changes between cool inspired air and warm expired air
The surgical plane of anesthesia is plane ___ stage ___

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