Science Quiz / Equine Med Midterm 2 Part 1

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Can you name the Equine Med Midterm 2 Part 1

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What is the etiological agent of Strangles?
 
What is NOT true regarding strangles?
a)it occurs 2-6 days following exposure to the etiological agent b)it typically presents with pyrexia c)it commonly involves swelling of femoral lymph nodes d)you'd expect to see thick yellow purulent nasal discharges e)you'd expect increased fibrinogen, chronic anemia and leukocytosis on lab work 
True or false: penicillin G procaine would be the treatment of choice for lymph node abscessation due to uncomplicated strangles?
 
This complication of strangles requires prolonged erythromycin or Penicillin G procaine treatment, along with multiple abscess removals.
It is associated with a poor prognosis. 
Which of the following is a likely source of transmission for Strep equi equi?
a)water buckets b)grooming equipment c)clothing and footwear of stable personnel d)all of the above 
True or false: Strep equi equi is quite likely to survive around a week on most surfaces, especially painted wood?
 
This sequelus of strangles is due to an inappropriate immune response causing vasculitis?
Usually results in swelling of head, legs, underbelly, sometimes with hemorrhage into the tissues. It may also affect the internal organs, and lead to laminitis, colic, weight loss and neuro signs. 
True or false: management with the pinnacle intranasal vaccine for strep equi equi may occasionally lead to purpura hemorrhagica?
 
When you have inflammation involving the pleural space or pleura coupled with pneumonia this is termed?
 
Which of the following is NOT a sign of pleuritis?
a)abducted elbows b)inspiratory grunt c)signs of colic d)rapid, shallow respiration e)recent stress in history f)none of the above 
Which of the following is not a common aerobic isolate of thoracocentesis in cases of pneumonia?
a)Strep equi equi b)Strep viridans c)Clostridium spp. d)Staph aureus e)E coli 
Which of the following signs would indicate the prognosis of pleuritis to be improved from the normal guarded to good?
a)anaerobic infection b)abscessation present c)fungal infection d)aerobic infection only e)fibrin coat on visceral pleura or bronchopulmonary fistula 
True or false: Pleuritis or pleuropneumoniae are typically referral cases in equine practice?
 
Name a general diagnostic method of use in equine respiratory cases?
 
A flexible endoscope is typically 160-200 cm long. What is the term for the longer (3m) tube that may be used for BAL?
 
When performing a BAL what two areas will require topical anesthetic?
 
What fluid would normally be used for BAL?
 
What manner of staining would normally be used after keeping a BAL sample on ice, centrifuging at ~700g and making an air dried direct smear of the pellets?
 
What is a TTA in the context of respiratory diagnostic tests?
 
Which is NOT true regarding a lung biopsy in horses?
a)it requires an area aproximately 5x5cm clipped and shaved b)you aim at the 6-9th intercostal space on the left side and the 7-9th on the right c) you must perform a local anesthetic block (15-20mL into intercostal muscle and visceral pleura) d)it requires a 1cm skin incision for the true-cut or spring loaded biopsy needle e)all of the above are true 
What general category of lung disease would be most indicative of a lung biopsy?
Rarely life threatening complications, but you do risk epistaxis, pulmonary hemorrhage. 
When testing pulmonary function, ____ refers to the degree of obstruction of airways, _____ to the stiffness of lungs.
 
 
At lower concentrations of administered ______, horses with heaves will exhibit more airway constriction.
 
Name a predisposing condition for neonatal foals to get respiratory conditions?
 
Which of the following is NOT one of the most common bacterial threats to neonatal foals (causing sepsis and resultant pneumonia)?
a) E. coli b)strep spp. c)Klebsiella d)staphylococcus aureus e)actionbaccilus 
Name a common viral agent affecting neonatal horses?
 
Reduced amount and production of _____ due to premature birth can lead to disruption of alveolar membranes, edema, alveolar flooding and interstitial pneumonia.
Along with sepsis and failure of passive transfer. 
Which of the following clinical signs might accompany pneumonia due to septicemia?
a)polyarthritis b)diarrhea c)hypopyon d)fever e)all of the above 
Foals with respiratory disease would tend to present with a ______ area of resonance on percussion?
 
A lymphopenia on CBC of a foal with respiratory signs would be suggestive of a _____ cause?
 
PaO2 values of less than __mmHg or PaCO2 values ranging from 45 to over __ mmHg would be characteristic of foals with respiratory illness.
 
 
Name an antibiotic you might use for a neonatal foal with respiratory illness in addition to ventolin or Fluticasone Diproprionate inhalors?
 
Which of the following statements is inaccurate regarding the treatment of neonatal foals with respiratory illness?
a)O2 administered intranasally should be humidified b)it is ideal to feed milk replacer to reduce contamination c)urine and fecal output should be monitored d)it is vital to frequently change body position e)repeated blood gases and CBC are advisable f)these are typically referral cases 
True or false: neonatal respiratory illness in horses is associated with a fair short term prognosis and a good long term prognosis?
 
What are the two most common causes of bronchointerstitial pneumonia in weanling foals (3-6 months old)
Typically acute onset of respiratory distress 
Which of the following is not a clinical sign suggestive of bronchointerstitial pneumonia in a weanling?
a)pyrexia b) dyspnea and 20-70 breaths per minute resp rate c)hyperresonance on both lung fields d)increased bronchial sounds, crackles and wheezes e)mucopurulent nasal discharge 
Which of the following lab results would you not associate with Bronchointerstitial pneumonia?
a)leucocytosis and hyperfibrinogenemia b)bacteria on tracheal aspirate c)increased mononuclear cells and neutrophils on BAL d)interstitial patterns on thoracic radiography e) PaO2 50-60, PCO2 45-65mmHg on arterial blood gas 
What are the three drug classes you would use to treat BronchoInterstitial Pneumonia (BIP)?
 
 
 
True or false: acute BIP typically is associated with a poor prognosis?
 
Afebrile foals 3-7 months old on a breeding farm with abundant mucopurulent nasal discharge and a deep productive cough may suffer from?
this condition is most commonly associated with streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus 
Which of the following is inaccurate regarding chronic nasal discharge syndrome?
a)mortality is around 10% b)morbidity is over 80% c)there is no sex predilection d)it doesn't affect the odds whether the foal was nursing or weaned.  
Which of the following is a predisposing factor for CNDS?
a)dysfunctional immune system b)inadequate ventilation in stable c)genetic predisposition d)summer months e) all of the above 
The clinical form of CNDS is _____ _____ ______, marked by an elevated respiratory rate, copious purulent nasal discharge, productive cough and elevated rectal temp.
 
The more common ____ form is marked by normal to moderately elevated resp rates, nasal discharge of the same character, intermittent productive cough and normal temp.
 
True or false: WBC and fibrinogen will typically be within normal values with CNDS, but bronchial cytology will show increased TCC, neutrophils, and lymphocytes?
 
True or false: the acute form of CNDS is treated with ceftiofur or ampicillin for a week, then 15 days of TMS or Clarithromycin or Rifampin?
 
What is the purpose of treating with Sputolysin in cases of CNDS?
 
This is a very helpful diagnostic tool to identify CNDS, and can help determine severity?
aids in the detection of wheezes, crackles. 
True or false: CNDS has a very poor response despite long term antibiotic therapy in most cases?
 
This pathogen has peak effect on foals 1-6 months old, causes over 90% morbidity on affected farms and under 10% mortality.
Predisposed by dirt paddocks, feces accumulation, overcrowding, and hot humid temperatures 
True or false: if clinical signs have appeared, R. equi has already formed an abscess?
Signs include fever, dyspnea, infrequent productive cough, muco-purulent nasal discharge, mucus movement in lower trachea, prominent crackles, less wheezes, dull area on chest percussion usually unilateral. 
True or false: clarithromycin or rifampin are usually prerequisite treatments for a full recovery from rhodococcal pneumonia?
 
Rhodococcus equi is capable of persistence within these cells?
 
Rhodococcal pneumonia tends to have a good prognosis unless abscesses seed to joint, brain or mesenteric lymph nodes, or induce ____ _____ in the thorax?
 
True or false: vaccination for EHV of mares before parturition may assist in prevention of rhodococcal pneumonia?
 
Which of the following characteristics would be more likely of R. equi, not S. zooepidemicus?
a)normal rectal temperature b)abundant nasal discharge c)normal WBC count d)patchy abnormalities on chest auscultation e)increased neutrophils on BAL 
In horses over 10 years old, the most likely allergic airway disease is _____, compared to under ten years old which is _____?
 
 
Name a predisposing factor for allergic airway disease?
 
The cross sectional area is reduced to 1/_ of the original if diameter is decreased by half?
 
What is NOT a clinical sign typically associated with inflammatory airway disease?
a)persistent cough b)exercise intolerance c)mild increase in respiratory rate d)increased bronchial sounds with occasional wheezes e)expanded lung fields on percussion 
Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign typically associated with Recurrent Airway Obstruction?
a)frequent cough b)exercise intolerance c)nasal flaring, marked respiratory rate increase d)wheezes and crackles on auscultation e)expanded lung fields on percussion f)abdominal breathing effort g)all of the above are legit 
For the following section answer heaves, IAD or both for which disease would be associated with the given clue?
young age, cough leading to reduced performance 
BAL shows mucus and PMNs 
BAL shows variety of inflammatory cells. 
Pulmonary function testing shows airway hyperresponsiveness 
What is the minimum length of a treatment protocol for heaves or NSIAD?
 
Of the following corticosteroid anti-inflammatory treatment options, which has the highest potency?
a)prednisone b)dexamethasone c)isoflupredone d)triamcinolone e)hydrocortisone 
Oral clenbuterol, inhaled fenoterol, salbutamol, albuterol, ipratropium bromide are all __-______ bronchodilators.
 
When treating a racing or event horse for IAD, your first choice would be Advair or flovent inhalers, your second choice would be systemic _______.
 
This condition affects 60-80% of the race horse population at some point, especially thoroughbreds and standardbreds, and occasionally quarterhorses.
It is diagnosed by endoscopy, and usually treated with oral or inhaled steroids, or bronchodilators before exercise. 
What type of virus causes Equine Viral Rhiopneumonitis?
 
True or false: although yearlings are most susceptible, outbreaks of Influenza A equine type 2 may occur in mature horses, and it is sporadic in 2-3 year olds?
 
With equine influenza virus, you expect ___ contagiousness, pyrexia lasting 1 day to 1 ____, early ____ discharge and later _____, hacking cough and lymphadenopathy.
 
 
 
 
There are 9 subtypes of equine herpes virus. Answer the following questions from these choices: a) 6-9 b)2 and 5 c)1 d)1 and 4 e)3
What types would you associate with neurologic signs? 
What types would you associate with a mild upper respiratory tract infection? 
What types would you associate with more severe respiratory signs? 
What types are associated with coital exanthema? 
What types are associated with African equids? 
Which of the following clinical signs would not be characteristic of herpes virus infection?
a)1-5 days of fever b)early serous and later purulent nasal discharge c)persistent hacking cough d)abortion e)neurologic signs f)submandibular lymphadenopathy 
Which of the following clinical signs would not be characteristic of equine rhinitis virus A or B? What virus would present as such?
a)1-3 days of fever b)early serous and later purulent nasal discharge c)submandibular lymphadenopathy d)hacking cough e)swelling of the lower limbs 
 
Which of the equine respiratory viruses could you not diagnose by virus neutralization and/or PCR from serum?
Clinical signs, endoscopy, BAL cytology and nasal swabs for virus isolation may be used for all 3 viruses. 
This is the gold standard for influenza virus identification.
 
True or false: antibiotics are typically part of prudent treatment for equine respiratory viruses?
 
Which equine respiratory virus does not have a vaccine available in Canada?
All vaccines are generally given once a year, twice a year for very active animals or 10-15 days prior to any major translocation. 
There is a vaccine available for this notifiable disease in Ontario.
The disease is contagious, common in stallions and causes edema of the limbs and genitalia due to severe vasculitis. 
Name a presenting complaint for mouth and upper respiratory tract?
 
True or false: when performing endoscopy through each nostril, sedation is necessary in URT infection equine patients?
 
This condition should be on your DDx list for exercise intolerance and respiratory noise.
It involves a problem with the recurrent laryngeal nerve... 
Which of the following would be part of your physical exam for a horse with URT problems?
a)percuss sinuses b)symmetry of head and neck c)air flow through nostrils d)presence of absence foul odor e)oral exam f)all of the above 
This procedure is frequently performed on roarer horses, to remove small sacs in the larynx, a source of some of the noise.
 
This procedure refers to the removal of the vocal fold.
 
This primary surgical treatment for laryngeal hemiplegia is frequently referred to as a tie back procedure.
 
Epiglottic entrapment tends to occur in this fold?
Can be caused by inflammation or turbulent air flow in pharynx or larynx. May be a result of laryngeal hemiplegia, dorsal displacement of soft palate or pharyngitis. Can also be due to epiglottic hypoplasia. 
True or false: you may us ea laser or a hooked bistoury to resect the entrapping aryepiglottic fold with epiglottic entrapment.
 
Elongation fo the soft palate, inflammation in the pharynx or guttural pouch, turbulent air flow, caudal retraction of larynx, epiglottic hypoplasia and playing with the bit can al
Associated with a characteristic noise, intermittent problems, often a presumptive diagnosis from history.  
Name a predisposing condition for DDSP which may require treatment, along with modifying tack and training?
 
This is the direct surgical treatment for dorsal displacement of soft palate?
You may also resect sternothyroideus (strap) muscles at their insertion on the thyroid cartilage. You can then do a laryngeal tie forward with suture augmenting the pull of the thyrohyoideus muscle.  
Young horses in training that are exposed to many antigens may suffer from this condition, visible on endoscopy?
 
The dorsal conchal, ventral conchal and sphenopalatine paranasal sinuses all drain into this opening?
It opens into the middle nasal meatus, rostral to the nasopharynx 
Name, in order from most rostral to most caudal (separated by commas) the teeth that project into maxillary sinuses?
Incisors= I, Canines= C, Premolars= P, Molars= M. 4 total do this. 
Laryngeal hemiplegia, epiglottic entrapment and DDSP are diagnosed mainly on endoscopy/resp sounds. What is NOT one of your main diagnostic methods for primary sinus infections?
a)character and unilateral or bilateral nature of nasal discharge b)sinus percussion c)external symmetry of head and neck d)radiography, endoscopy e)foul odor f)all of the above would factor in 
If you wish to collect a sample from the sinuses for culture, or to perform drainage and lavage, you can do so through a ______-pin hole.
 
A bigger hole, if necessary, can be made in the horses head into the sinuses using this tool?
 
The largest holes, when necessary, are made in this form?
 
True or false: equine teeth wear at a rate of about 2mm per year, erupt continuously throughout the horse's life and elongate until 6-8 years old?
 
This is a common complication of sinus infections in P4, M1, M2 and M3 (more likely molars in older horses).
 
Although nasal discharge is a likely sign of tooth root infection, the main signs would be seen on?
 
True or false: The usual treatment for a tooth root infection is endodontic?
 
This condition of the guttural pouch tends to present with bilateral purulent nasal dicharge, and is quite evident on radiography.
In some chronic cases you may see concretions of pus (chondroids) forming. 
True or false: the typical treatment for guttural pouch empyema is surgical drainage?
 
Which of the following is the least likely differential for purulent nasal discharge?
a)neoplasia b)LRT infection with Rhodococcus equi c)Strangles d)guttural pouch empyema e)traumatic sinusitis f)tooth root infection 
True or false: guttural pouch mycosis can lead to bloody nasal discharge, and can be treated by local antifungals, ligation and catheter occlusion of affected arteries.
 
True or false: surgical excision via bone flap is the only treatment for ethmoid hematomas?
This condition also presents with bloody nasal discharge. 
Name a lower respiratory disease that might cause bloody nasal discharge?
 
These types of fractures are especially common in foals due to rough handling?
 
This condition is inherited, causing obvious incisor malocllusion, and wear of premolar and molar surfaces.
Usually treated with orthodontics. 
A neonate presenting with milk discharging from the nostrils, with or without aspiration pneumonia typically has?
 
True or false: normal wear of cheek teeth is taller on the lingual aspect for the mandibular teeth and taller on the buccal aspect for the maxillary teeth?
 
An uneven occlusal surface is frequently referred to as '____' mouth. Hooks typically form on the ____ upper arcade and ____ lower arcade.
 
 
 
True or false: radiology is usually necessary to successfully diagnose fractures of the incisive bone or mandible?
 
This is the most common method for repairing fractures of the incisive bone/mandible?
a)pins b)screws c)wire configurations of various types d)plates e)external fixation 

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