Science Quiz / Cell and Developmental Biology I

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QUIZ: Cell and developmental biology revision quiz I

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Drosophila lifecycle
What is the early embryonic stage of Drosophila
What process forms this
Roughly how many nuclei are formed
Crucially, what process does not occur before this point
Anteriorly concentrated maternal mRNA
The above binds and prevents translation of what
As such, where is the above concentrated
Posteriorly concentrated maternal mRNA
The above binds and prevents translation of what
s such, where is the above concentrated
Gradient thresholds of the above regulate expression pattern of what
Bicoid promotes expression of what
What is needed for expression of Kruppel
Hunchback thresholds define the borders of these gap genes anteriorly
What defines posterior borders of the above
Combinations of gap genes cause stripped expression of what
Name of the zones where the above are expressed
This is expressed in odd numbered ones
This is expressed in odd numbered ones
What occurs after pair rule expression
What do pair rule genes activate
What are activated next
Example of a loss of function mutant
Example of a gain of function mutant
Two parts of a hox gene
Complex morphology due to combinatorial Hox expression
Degree of amino acid conservation in bilaterian homeodomain
Degree of amino acid conservation in bilaterian paired domain
Electroretinogram study showing sensitivity of ectopic fly eyes
Plant mRNA localised early in development
What compound does the above primarily mediate
What are present at low auxin levels
To what do these bind and deactivate
Compound which causes degradation of the repressor
Protein which directs auxin to the above to activate it
Examples of the above, all from the same pathway in the same order
Auxin response genes now activate, differentiating what
What do Monopterous mutants lack
Structure formed by histones and DNA
The above make up what
Inactive form of the above
Active form
Prevalence of the above in the nucleus
When does histone modification occur
Where are changes made
By what means do they promote/repression transcription
Types of changes
Enzyme responsible for the last of the above
Main sites of acetylation
What charged R group does it neutralise
Drosophila chromosome which recieves low acetylation
What gene is reactivated as such
What is the product of the above used for
Silencing of the extra X chromosome in females
Process of inactivation by shortening/condensing
Product of the above
Gene responsible for the deactivation, which itself remains active
Cell type in which inactivation is reversible
Inactivation in mutant forms causes what kind of diseases
Examples of the above
Enzyme which removes acetyl groups
Promotional histone methylation occurs where
Repressive histone methylation occurs where
Site where DNA methylation occurs
Enzyme responsible for DNA methylation
Main sites of repression
What recruits what during double silencing
What genes are hypomethylated
Nuclear clones of what animal have different coat colours
Why did they differ
Study showing the above
What condition allows male Calico cats to exist
Chromosomal condition in the above
Study showing epigenetic inheritance can be more rapid than evolution
In the above famine in one generation caused what in the next
Technique to detect epigenetic marker
Compound used to crosslink DNA to histones
Repressive protein family in Drosophila
What does the above lock
Result of the above three elements
What prevents polycomb binding
What does this prevent
Result of the above two elements
Flowering in response to a period of low temperature
What gene inhibits flowering
Gene promoting expression of the above
What decreases around FLC after vernalisation
What increases around FLC after vernalisation
Proteins which maintain FLC expression
Protein which represses FLC expression
Proteins which maintain VIN3 expression
The latter is a homolog of what protein in Drosophila
Enzymes causing phosphorylation
Enzymes causing dephosphorylation
Typical target of phosphorylation
Counterclockwise flagella rotation causes
Clockwise flagella rotation causes what
What protein senses an environmental repellant
What does it signal
What is the next element in the pathway
What does it conduct
What is the target of the above
What occurs next
What is the target of this
What is the next element in the pathway
What does it signal
What does the above control
Phosphoprotein which stops FLiM interaction
Concentration of calcium on signal
Concentration of calcium off signal
What responds to food in the duodenum
What does the above secrete
Where does the above act
What does it bind to
What happens to the above
What dissociates as a result
What does it release
What does it bind to activate it
What does the active subunit hydrolise
What are the products of the hyolysis
What does the latter bind to
Where is the above located
What is released via the ion channel
What migrates to the plasma membrane as a result
PKC is activated by what
Activated PKC causes calcium oscillation where
What are released as a result
What are the above released from
Gall stones and alcoholism stimulate release of what in the liver
What do the above cause
Trypsinogen is released, causing what
What is the condition arising from the above
Treatment with what compoudns counteracts this
What activity do G proteins have
Hydrolysis of bound ATP alows G proteins to act as what
Direct calcium on mechanisms
Indirect calcium on mechanism
Example enzyme used in the above
Product when the above acts on NAD
Product when the above acts on NADP
What does the above act on
What is the result of this
Examples of Ca off mechanisms
Partial interference of a process by a drug is
Arabidopsis mutants have altered calcium oscillation by mutation in what gene
Mutation in what gene prevents calcium oscillation
Activated PKC activates what in stomatal cells
The above binds calcium then migrates where
What does it bind here
What does the above dephosphorylate
What is exposed on the above molecule as a result
NFAT binds to DNA and promotes what
What proteins rephosphorylate NFAT
What enzyme activity do TKRs show
Example of the above
What does ligand binding induce
What does this activate
What does this phosphorylate
Where are these located
What binds to the phosphotyrosine residues
What part actually binds
What is recruited to the SH3 domain
What does the above activate
Components of the resultant protein kinase cascade
What does MAP phosphorylate
What does p90 phosphorylate
What do the above two proteins promote expression of
What does the above control
Mutations in what oncogene causes 50% of colorectal tumors
What senses a drop in blood oxygen
What does the above secrete
What cell does the above bind to
Where does it bind specifically
What is permanently bound to the above
What binds to the phosphotyrosine residues
What occurs to the above
What do activates STATs do next
The dimers bind to genes, inhibiting what
They also promote production of what
What binds to endothelial cell GPCRs
What is activated
Calcium release activates what
This converts what and what to what and what
What does the last of these activate
What does the above produce
What does the above activate
What does the above induce
What does Viagra inhibit
Bacterium with stalk and swarmer cells
What produces the swarmer form
What produces the stalk form
What does the above do
What does it act on
What does the above inhibit
As a result, what form does CtrA exist as
What does PleC do
Free DivL does what
What form of CtrA is produces as a result
What bacterium forms spores
What is produced in the septum between mother cell and prespore
This causes what to dissociate from what
What does the above activate
PAR 1 and PAR2 occur in what organism
In what bit specifically?
What states for the PAR proteins exist in
What does PAR1 downregulate
What does this allow the expression of
The effect of the tubules causes this pathway to be what
What occurs next, resulting in one cell with PIE1, the other without
What bacterium forms a heterocyst
What accumulates when nitrogen is low
What is this sensed by
What does the above promote exprssion of
What do the above two cause
What does the above counter
The above supress what in neighbouring cells
Product of sporulation in yeast
What enzyme acts on chromosome II during divison
The above recombines what gene sets
What HDAC represses one or the other of the above two
What is the result of this recombination in the tetrad
Alpha receptor in A cells
A receptor in alpha cells
What do the above two receptors activate
What does the above trigger
What is the result of localisation of this pathway
What do the cell types move towards
What do sporulating Bacillis cells produce
What does the above repress
This repression allows expression of what
These resist what toxins also produced by the cell
What do the above toxins kill
What does Sigma F activate in sporulating cells
What does the above cleave
What is the product of the above
What does the above activate
The latter degrades DNA where
Types of programmed cell death
Cells which the above processes act on
Processes where the latter reason is important
Enzymes responsible for mitochondrial lysis
What does the above form part of
Gene linking bacterial phages and animal mitochondrial lysis

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