Science Quiz / Small Ruminants HM

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Can you name the Small Ruminants HM

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The most common 'byproduct' of the goat industry in Ontario is ____, the most common in sheep is _____
____, ____ (Note that in the States, the primary byproduct of the Canadian Goat industry is their primary product) 
The most important product of the sheep industry in Ontario is _____, the goat industry's is _____
____, ____ 
True or false: sheep populations are declining everywhere, including North America, except for some Asian countries?
The primary disease that is of concern to the Canadian Sheep Federation is?
Which of the following is NOT a quality evaluation criteria of wool?
a)micron diameter b)crimp c)colour d)dirtyness e)all of the above are evaluation criteria 
This country is the biggest producer and consumer of wool, particularly 25-50 microns for carpeting or socks.
Name a breed of sheep that produces fine (19-25 micron) wool?
True or false: in a large flock of sheep, shearing is technically profitable (in most cases)
How many months before lambing will a vet recommend shearing?
Cookstown is one example of a place with CCWG depot. What is the CCWG?
Which of the following is not a weakness of the sheep meat industry?
a)slaughter capacity b)lack of federally inspected plants c)niche market d)all of the above are weaknesses 
The majority of lambs marketed are sold here first.
True or false: the market for mutton is greater at Easter and Christmas?
The prices for heavy lambs tend to be highest at this time of year, when supply is low?
Which of the following cheeses is not made from Sheep's milk?
a)Feta b)chevrai c)camembert d)roquefort e)romano 
True or false: sheep's milk must be shipped fresh if good cheese is to be made?
True or false: Sheep's milk is not regulated by the province for quality measures- these are set by the producers for their own product.
Which of the following is sheep's milk low in compared to goat or cow's milk?
a)fat b)protein c)lactose d)none of the above 
Most breeding rams sold will be of this type of breed?
An advantage shared by 'hair sheep' such as Barbados black bellies, Katahdin, Fat tail sheep, Dorpers would be?
For which market might a breed like a Finnish Landrace, with a naturally short tail, be advantageous?
In addition to having a short tail, the Finnish Landrace is classified as a _____ breed.
Same classifications as the Romanov breed. 
This maternal breed has moderate prolificacy, but is favoured for its extended breeding season (ideal for fall or early winter lambing).
This synthetic maternal breed is the dominant one in Ontario.
OLIBS (Ontario Lamb Improvement Breeding Strategy), developed at U of G, crosses this breed with the Rideau to improve out of season breeding.
What is another name for terminal sire breeeds?
Which of the following is not a terminal sire breed?
a)Rideau b)Charollais c)Texel d)Suffolk e)none of the above 
Which of the following breeds of sheep would you associate with the Dairy industry in NA?
a)East Friesan b)Rideau c)Awassi d)Lacaune e)A, B and C f)A, C and D g)all of the above 
True or false: Only F1 crossbred sheep will show better production than average of the 2 breeds crossed?
True or false: most goats in the world are from large flocks (over 200 animals) in developing nations?
True or false: goats are better as pets than sheep due to the increased intelligence and personality by comparison?
I am a dairy goat breed, beige in colour with white stripes, seasonal breeding habits and average butter fat?
What colour and size are Saanens?
Dairy goat breed. 
This Dual purpose breed is prolific with a good carcass, and is also distinguished by low-average milk production with high butterfat.
Also prized for the colouration, the big floppy ears and the roman nose. 
This dual purpose breed is a persistent lactator (although average-low in production), with short external pinnae.
This meat breed of goat was originally imported from South Africa.
You'll see few fibre flocks in Ontario, but name a breed?
Being the hilariously cruel species that we are, we breed goats that suffer from periodic myotonic convulsions for our own amusement. What is the breed called?
Demand and supply of goat milk is not controlled, therefore excess is often sold as feed for this animal?
Name a disease that may be readily transmissible to humans drinking raw goats milk?
Animals of this reproductive status will provide higher value fibre (less stress)
True or false: there are feedlots for sheep?
This is the most common meat management system for sheep and goats in the UK, Australia and New Zealand?
In meat production, replacement females are bred at _ months of age?
What is the gestation length in months of sheep and goats?
What is the general weaning time for a meat lamb or kid?
For how many weeks should an ewe or doe be flushed prior to breeding (28-42 days)?
This breeding pattern allows for market of lambs at Christmas, Easter, etc. and most often involves multiple breeding groups on one farm?
What is the most popular accelerated lambing program?
Involves breeding 2 separate flocks, each one every 8 months, short exposures, weaning at 50-60 day sold. 
This less commonly used accelerated lambing program gives each ewe the opportunity to lamb 5 times in 3 years.
Production cycle is 7.2 months, with 5 lambing periods per year, and three flocks. 
Which of the following is not a common management strategy for dairy sheep's one lamb per year?
a)weaning after 1 month b)removal at birth after colostrum ingestion c)60 day nursing period d)on lamb 30 days, only allowed to nurse for 1/2 the day e)all of the above are accepted systems 
What is the usual lactation period and dry period for dairy goats?
When does peak milk occur?
Which of the following is a common strategy for dairy goat weaning?
a)removal at birth after colostrum b)weaning after 1 month c)30 day weaning period but kids are locked away for half of day d)all of the above 
How many times per year can you shear fibre goats?
Name a method for increasing kg meat/breeding female/year?
What is the msot common method for sheep and goat identification?
If tattoos are selected as identification methods, the standard is flock letters on the ____ ___ and year letter and number in ___ ____
Which of the following year letters is used for 2014 in Canada?
a)O b)Q c)I d)B e)V 
The 43rd lamb born in this year into flock XYZ would be?
Ear notching as an identification method risks the transmission fo this disease in lambs?
Which of the following is not true of the National Identification program for sheep?
a) producers must keep records of all sheep entering fro breeding purposes b)all sheep 18 months and older leaving the farm must be recorded c)individual numbers are assigned to animals when they leave the farm of origin d)pink steel tags are being retired in favour of RFID tags over time e)this is a useful program for scrapie surveillence 
True or false: there is also a mandatory Canadian Goat ID program?
Which of the following is not necessary to record for reproduction parameters?
a)ram: ewe ratio b)pregnancy success c)ram in and out dates d)# of times each ewe is marked as mounted e)all of the above are necessary 
Name something you should track for inventory of stock?
Which of the following is not a necessary parameter to track for growth?
a)pre weaning and post weaning weights b)ADGs c)feed efficiency d)days to market e)all of the above are necessary 
In addition to timing of any deaths in the flock, what more should you record?
1 number difference in BCS takes 2 weeks to lose and 6-8 weeks to gain in most cases. How much weight is it?
If there are two groups formed after pregnancy scanning, one of them will be those pregnant with singles, the other will be?
_____ and ____ ____ 
True or false: primiparous animals should be fed separately from any groups formed based on pregnancy scanning?
Name the three other times aside from preg scanning when you should body condition score?
At the same palpation score, a ____ type sheep should be scored 1/2 highert han a ____ type, due to higher internal than subcu fat ratio
____, ___ 
Which of the following would not be characteristic of sheep with BCS 1/5?
a)Sunken eyes b)easily caught c)prominent lumbar vertebrae d)transverse processes remain rounded e)wool parts over the spine as the sheep moves 
Which is not characteristic of BCS 2/5 for a sheep?
a)no muscle wasting b)entire skeleton easily palpated c)sunken eyes d)moderately full fleece may hide this e)the animal can still keep up with the flock 
What body condition score do you want a sheep at when it lambs out?
A dip in the centre of the spinous ridge would be characteristic of what BCS in a sheep?
True or false: A ram should ideally be around BCS 4 when it is placed into the breeding pen?
When doing BCS for dairy goats, the ____ score indicates muscling, the ____ score fat status.
If muscle extends at 2/3 the distance along transverse processes, the dairy goat is likely _ out of 5
For the next few questions, please look at the hint for the reproductive event, and name a performance measure for it?
ewes joined with ram 
ewes conceive 
ewes abort 
ewes lamb 
Total lambs born 
True or false: the breeding period or exposure lasts from the 'ram (or buck) in' to 'ram (or buck) out' days, but it is 1 day only for AI?
True or false: mating rate actually measures the number of times females get mounted by the male?
Usually defined by breeding period per group, could be annual. 
What is an appropriate mating rate for primiparous animals in ovulatory season?
Any percentage in the range will be accepted as correct. Hint: for mature multiparous out of season it is 50-70%, but this range is not that large. 
How many days should you add or subtract to the breeding period to get your length of lambing or kidding period?
The ewe's estrous cycle is __ days, the doe's is __.
True or false: There is a problem if less than 80% of females conceive in the first cycle?
If I divide the # of ewes scanned prgnant over the # exposed to the male, this gives me?
Usually determined around 42 days after males are removed. 
True or false: Abortion rate is calculated only as # of abortions observed over # of females exposed to the male?
This percentage value for abortion rate may be indicative of enzootic disease issues in the herd or flock?
15-40% in epizootic outbreaks. 
True or false: term births with very weak lambs or kids that die within the first day are considered abortions?
True or false: a lambing or kidding rate of over 70% is expected for primiparous females out of season?
Drop rate or litter size is the # of lambs born alive and dead over # of _____ ______
Higher prolificacy is a trait of sheep compared to goats... true or false?
Producers would ideally like the highest number of litters to be ____
Dividing the sum age of animals at first parity/# of primiparous animals in the breeding group or flock gives?
At _ months into lactation, a dairy goat should be bred for ideal dry period and lactation intervals?
Name a potential disease cause for reluctance to mount the female or breed?
Which of the following is not an indication for a relatively higher ratio of males to females?
a)larger or more mountainous paddock range b)natural breeding c)ov synch programs d)younger males e)anovulatory season 
Name an infectious cause of orchitis and epididymitis?
A good breeding ram should at least be over this scrotal circumference in season?
You should wait until at least this many hours have passed after removing CIDRs before the gentlemen go in.
Failur eof the female to be mated is more often due to this cause in goats than shepe.
May resolve spontaneously, doesn't interfere with fertility, not linked to breeding. 
True or false: Dairy goats tend to be northern breeds with very seasonal breeding?
This is the primary mycotoxin which may be a hormone disruptor in North America.
True or false: freemartinism is as prominent in small ruminants as it is in cows?
What is the genotype of a polled intersex?
True or false: stress can destroy goat or sheep pregnancies at any time (chased by predators, etc.)
Which of the following is not a common infectious cause of abortion in small ruminants?
a)Chlamydia abortus b)campylobacter fetus c)toxoplasma gondii d)campylobacter jejuni e)caprine herpes virus 
a)Bacillus licheniformis b)coxiella burnetii c)border disease virus d)listeria monocytogenes e)salmonella spp 
a)Cache valley virus b)Chlamydia abortus c)toxoplasma gondii d)sarcocystosis e)all of the above 
If you're unsure of gestational stage when investigating abortion problems, you can examine this aspect of the fetuses?
How many days apart should you take acute and convalescent sera samples?
This disease is the number one cause of abortion in Ontario for goats, and number 2 for sheep.
according to AHL diagnoses records 
This disease is the number one cause of abortion in Ontarian sheep, #3 in our goats.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of chlamydophila abortus infection?
a)severe placentitis b)stillbirths and weak lambs or kids may present c)fetal reabsorption or early abortion also possible d)rams and bucks may transmit the infection between flocks e)aborted fetuses and uterine discharge are the most important infection sources f)organism is associated with systemic disease visible before pregnancy g)organism may infect through any mucous membrane h)May affect the next pregnancy if infected late in gestation i)protective immunity only after abortion 
This organism is the primary differential if you find intracellular inclusion bodies on placental smears when looking for Cp abortus.
This antibiotic is the most commonly given during outbreaks of Cp abortus, may lower level of abortion by up to 50%
7 day withdrawal times with single injection. 
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of toxoplasma gondii?
a)parasite of cats that can infect sheep and goats b)tachyzooites encyst in tissues of all but cats (complete sexual cycle in felines) c)invades the cotyledons before the fetus d)associated with aborted dead and mummification only e)metastatic points of calcification can be found at cotyledons f)tissue necrosis makes immunohistochemistry more useful than histology g)fetal heart blood serology is diagnostic h)kittens are the primary source of oocysts, so spaying barn cats is a good idea 
True or false: both goats and sheep only abort once from toxoplasma?
Name a drug you might use to control oocysts in the intestine to prevent abortion due to toxoplasma?
Which form of Coxiella burnetii is the environmentally infective form?
Which of the following IS characteristic of coxiella burnetii?
a)cotyledon lesions b)intercotyledonary thickening and suppuration c)severe placentitis d)relatively high dose for infectivity in humans e)all of the above f)b and c only 
Which of the following is reliably diagnostic for Q fever?
a)presence on placenta b)bulk tank presence c)serology d)quantitative pcr, immunohistochemistry, histology e)all of the above 
True or false: the vaccination for q fever, although still unlicensed here, is available in Canada through special channels, and can be effective over 5 years to reduce shedding.
This is the antimicrobial of use for the severe form of q fever in humans (affecting 20% of those infected)
20% have mild flu like symptoms and probably don't seek medical attention, 60% have no symptoms. 
True or false: goats are not susceptible to campylobacter fetus ss fetus or campylobacter jejuni infection?
Which is not characteristic of the campylobacter abortion organisms?
a)unusually short incubation times compared to other agents b)fever and diarrhea in affected ewes c)target shaped areas of necrosis on the liver of the fetus d)severe placentitis e)edematous cotyledons f)corkscrew bacteria with flagella on impression smears g)C and S is highly important 
What antibiotic would you use for C fetus fetus? For C jejuni?
In order to prevent congenital goitre (iodine deficiency abortion), salt should contain these supplements.
Which of the following is NOT a sign of iodine deficiency abortion?
a)hairless or short-haired stillborn or abortions b)hypoplastic thyroid glands c)myxedema of limbs d)boer goats and dorset sheep more prone e)all of the above are characteristic 
True or false: treating iodine deficiency is as simple as painting the skin with a tincture of iodine?
Which Listeria species only causes abortion in sheep?
Which of the following would you not associate with Listeria species abortion?
a)microabscesses of the fetal liver b)retained fetal membranes and metritis c)severe placentitis d)extreme systemic illness in mother e)all of the above are legit 
What AMD would you use for listeria control?
What virus causes 'hairy shaker lambs' to be born? What disease is highly related and may cause the same signs?
Both more commonly affect sheep, goats still suceptible 
Which period of gestation would you associate with hairy shaker syndrome?
a)infection at 30-60 days b)nfection at 60-85 days c)infection at 85-100 days d)infection after 100 days e)all of the above 
True or false: it is advisible to vaccinate against border disease virus?
This is a mosquito borne virus of the Bunyavirus group, associated with deformed lambs.
Lesions include arthrogryposis, brachygnathia, hydrancephaly, scoliosis. 
Close contact with dogs is associated with the transmission of this parasite, more commonly causing neurological disease or myopathy than abortion.
Another deficiency of Great Lake basin soils, this one is associated with in utero muscle disease, EED or delayed parturition.
A glucocorticoid deficiency and fibre diameter are linked to habitual abortion in this breed of goat
Cyclops birth will occur if this plant is ingested on day 14 of gestation.
These toxic plants must be differentiated from Cache valley virus. Both cause arthrogryposis.
They are also associated with right heart hypertrophy, hydrops amnios. 

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