Science Quiz / Equine medicine midterm 1 part 3

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Can you name the Equine medicine midterm 1 part 3

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EcPV-1 is the host specific etiological agent for what skin disease of horses?
 
True or false: infection with EcPV-1 may occur in perfectly healthy horses due to proper use of contaminated grooming tools?
 
Which is the least likely place for clinical presentation of EcPV-1?
a)penis b)vulva c)lower limb d)back e)face 
What two viruses may cause with Aural Plaques? (abbreviations accepted, as well as full name)
Both MAY be transmitted by black flies (still a question mark) 
 
True or false: aural plaques, like cutaneous papillomatosis, will spontaneously regress?
 
This is the second most common tumour of equine skin, and the most commonly malignant one. Malignancy tends to be low grade, locally invasive.
Tend to occur on muco-cutaneous junctions, on unpigmented or poorly pigmented skin, and be associated witht he sun, burns, papillomas. Metastases are uncommon, usually occur first in regional lymph nodes. Associated with granulation, ulceration, bleeding, necrotic smell. 
Name a general breed type or a specific breed predisposed to SCC?
 
This is the definitive diagnostic method for SCC?
 
Which of the following is a correct therapy for SCC?
a)surgical excision b)laser therapy c)immunotherapy d)hyperthermia e)all of the above 
What is the proper name for 'swamp cancer'
The most common equine skin tumour (2/3), benign tumour of fibroblasts, no metastasis but is locally aggressive. 
This type of melanoma is also known as yong horse melanoma, may be congenital or acquired.
Ulceration of overlying epidermis is common, and surgery is usually curative. 
True or false: biopsy is necessary to confirm melanoma?
 
Name a virus that is part of the poorly understood multifactorial etiology of equine sarcoid?
 
ELA-B1 or ELA-W13 is better known as the _____ susceptibility gene?
most common in QH, donkeys, low prevalence in stb. 
What is essential for diagnosis of equine sarcoid?
 
Surgical excision alone has a much higher recurrence rate than with additional cryotherapy for sarcoids. Where is this not suitable?
 
What would your preferred therapy be for a periocular sarcoid?
 
What chemotherapeutic agent is extremel useful in the treatment of equine sarcoid?
 
Grey, dappled grey or white horses, including arabians, percherons, TBs and Lippizaners are prone to this tumour as they age?
Especially around the ventrum of tail, perineum, external genitalia 
What two chemotherapeutic agents might be used on melanoma?
 
This drug, when given orally, is helpful in the treatment of melanoma through a mechanism of action we dont' completely understand.
Probably induces or activates T helpers. 
Please give the term which refers to each condition of abnormal urine?
complete lack of urine production 
reduced urine output 
frequent urination of small volumes, distinct from normal estrus ehaviour 
lack of control with frequent dribbling without posturing 
increased total volume passed per day 
straining, discomfort 
True or false: chronic renal failure patients may have halitosis and ulceration or increased tartar as a sequelus?
 
What is not typically palpable transrectally?
a)caudal pole of left kidney b)distended ureters c)caudal pole of right kidney d)distended urethra e)bladder 
What kind of crystals are normal for horse urine, in addition to mucus?
 
True or false: the SG of horse urine should be over 1.014 or under 1.008.
 
What is the normal pH range of horse urine?
_._-_ 
What kind of test is required to confirm proteinuria suspected after a commercial urine dipstick test?
Due to alkalinity of horse urine, tendency to get false positives on dipstick. 
9-10 mmol/L is the 'renal threshold' blood concentration of ______, above which it may normally appear in urine? (functional kidney)
 
What are sheets of epithelial cells in the urine suggestive of?
 
True or false: a few tubular casts are normal in horse urine?
 
Which is more likely to present without systemic inflammation: pyelonephritis or cystitis?
 
Blood Urea and creatinine (especially creatinine) are very ______ but not very ______ tests of renal function.
_____. _____ Hint: would you see more false positives or negatives for poor kidney function when discussing azotemia? 
True or false: a urine: serum creatinine ratio over 50 to 1 suggests normal renal function?
 
If I multiplied urine concentration of an ion by serum creatinine concentration, then divided the product by serum concentration of ion x urine creatinine, what would i get?
 
Fibrosis woudl affect echogenicity on ultrasonography how?
 
A hyperechoic line with an acoustic shaddow is seen on ultrasound of a kidney. What might this be?
 
What condition on early diagnostic tests would take water deprivation tests out of your repertoire for hyposthenuric horses?
With all patients beware of colonic impaction during these tests. 
What is the maximum duration of a complete water deprivation test?
You stop earlier if the horse concentrates urine to over 1.025 SG, confirming normal nephron function. If you need to go to a partial test afterwards, but this works, then there is medullary washout from psychogenic polydipsia. 
If concentration occurs only after administration of exogenous ADH, what condition does the horse have specifically?
 
True or false: ureteral openings into the bladder should drain in synchronous fashion about once per minute on cystoscopy?
 
What kind of test might you use to detect ectopic ureters?
 
What is the medical name for 'tying-up' after a race?
Elevated CK and AST, myoglobinuria with high specific gravity showing prerenal azotemia? 
True or false: myoglobinuria can be nephrotoxic?
 
Name a differential for thickend small intestine?
 
True or false: cystocentesis is a likely sampling method for urinalysis of adult horses?
 
For what later purpose would you split and save haflf the urine sample?
 
Name a possible complication of renal biopsy under U/S guidance?
 
What would you test by catheterizing the bladder, infusing dye then performing abdominocentesis?
 
Name a cause of acute renal failure in horses?
 
With ARF, you'd expect variable potassim ____calcemia and ____phosphatemia
____, ____ 
With anuria or oliguria, you'd treat by diuresis with furosemide or mannitol, and renal vasodilation with ______
 
Which of the following is not a cause of CHRONIC renal failure *uncommon in horses*
a)congenital abnormality b)toxic insult c)chronic interstitial necrosis or fibrosis d)pyelonephritis e)proliferative glomerulonephritis 
With CRF, you'd expect ____calcemia and ____phosphatemia
hyper, hypo 
The only PE abnormalities with psychogenic polydipsia are?
The most common cause of PU/PD in horses. A behavioural vice treated with environmental enrichment. 
True or false: the passage of urine rules out bladder rupture?
 
True or false: standing with an arched back may indicate ruptured bladder in a foal?
 
If the ratio fo creatinine in abdominal fluid to serm is over _ then it is likely uroperitoneum?
 
Reduction in dietary calcium or acidification of urine with one of these two compounds might treat urolithiasis?
 
Pyelonephritis is usually an ascending infection following either ____ ______ or _____ ______
It may also be hematogenous due to bacteremia. 
 
Name an antibiotic that you might treat pyelonephritis with in a prolonged manner, weighing nephrotoxic potential against drug concentration in urine?
 
True or false: both pyelonephritis and cystitis may result in a lower urine pH?
 
Which of the following is least likely to affect the bladder (though all urinary tract neoplasia is rare)
a)squamous cell carcinoma b)transitional cell carcinoma c)melanoma d)fibromatous polyps 
Other than renal cell carcinoma, this cancer is the other that might affect the kidney?
 
What renal toxin is contained in blister beetles?
Other signs include colic, necrosis of mucous membranes, ulceration around the GI, cardiotoxicity in high concentrations 

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