Science Quiz / Equine Medicine midterm 1 part 2

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Can you name the Equine Medicine midterm 1 part 2

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True or false: the equine liver converts ammonia to urea?
 
How many days it take to entirely renew the liver?
Any multiple of five within the range will be accepted. 
Which of the following clotting proteins is not produced in the liver?
a) VII b)IX c)I d) IV e)X 
True or false: after the liver of the horse produces bile it is stored in the gall bladder?
 
Which of the following substances detoxified by the liver is exogenous in origin?
a)endotoxins b)plant toxins c)ammonia d)bilirubin e) 
What percentage of functional capacity must be lost before liver failure?
Any number in range will be accepted. 
Which of the following is the least common sign of hepatic insufficiency?
a)hemolysis b) weight loss c)diarrhea d)icterus e)hepatic encephalopathy 
True or false: chronic liver disease will have a gradual onset?
 
What is the more descriptive name of Theiler's disease?
Similar to hepatitis B in humans. The most common cause of acute hepatic failure in the horse. Tends to only affect horses over 2 years old, and mostly 5-15. 
This primary liver disease tends only to affect foals between 7 and 42 days of age?
 
Which of the following is the least common primary hepatic ailment?
a)toxic hepatopathy b)gallstones c)tyzzer's disease d)cholangitis e)portosystemic vascular shunting 
Which of the following is least likely to suffer from fatty liver (hyperlipemia)?
a)ponies b)warm blooded horses c)mini horses d)cold blooded horses e)donkeys 
True or false: serum associated acute hepatitis is often associated with administration of equine biologics 4-10 weeks earlier?
 
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of hepatic encephalopathy?
a)jaundice b)bilirubinuria c)fair prognosis with treatment d)blindness e)manic depression 
True or false: The six pyrrolizidine alkaloids in Tansy ragwort are toxic immediately?
 
Name one of the three signs of pyrrolizidine poisoning on liver biopsy?
 
What is the most common biliary obstruction in the horse?
 
If direct/direct bilirubin is over 25-30% of total bilirubin, what should you suspect?
 
How do you obtain definitive diagnosis of cholelithiasis?
 
Which of the following treatments would be contraindicated in horses with cholelithiasis?
a)ceftiofur b)enrofloxacin c)DMSO d)bile salt therapy e)fluid therapy 
How is the prognosis for cholelithiasis in horses?
 
What is the etiological agent of Tyzzers?
Fecal oral transmission, not highly contagious, mainly affects foals at a young age. 
True or false: antibiotic treatment with penicillin, tetracycline or erythromycin is often successful in Tyzzer's?
 
Name a cause of secondary hyperlipemia in horses?
 
True or false: you might expect a normal TPR in most cases of liver disease?
 
What is the best mucous membrane to assess for icterus?
Icterus may also result from anorexia and fasting. 
The lack of metabolism of this photodynamic agent by the dysfunctional liver may produce photosensitization in liver patients?
 
Which fo the following is NOT a sign of hepatic encephalopathy?
a) excessive yawning b)circling c)compulsive walking d)head pressing e)none of the above 
Which of the following liver enzymes is most associated with the bile duct?
a)GGT b)GLDH c)SDH d)AST 
Why is there no post-prandial rise in bile acids in horses?
 
Decreased amounts of these three substances in blood are terminal events in hepatic disease?
Name one and you get the answer. 
Which of the following is not one of the most useful diagnostic tests in liver disease?
a)SDH b)GGT c)AST d)Serum bile acids 
What should you perform before liver biopsy? Which intercostal space?
 
 
Which of the following is not a differential for liver disease?
A)rabies B)West Nile Virus C)vesicular stomatitis D)Eastern Equine Encephalitis E)Western Equine Encephalitis 
The following treatments for liver disease are all for this purpose?
Low protein diet, Lactulose, mineral oil, DSS, neomycin, metronidazole 
Most compromised foals have multiple problems. Name one that requires immediate attention before more detailed analysis?
 
Which of the following is not a physiological characteristic of foals?
a)low water content in body b)barely competent kidneys c)low fat stores, prone to catabolism d)immature organ system e)different drug metabolism than adults 
Approximately what fraction (_ out of _) of a mother's milk per day must a foal ingest for their energy requirements?
 
By what percentage would the caloric energy requirement increase in sick foals?
 
Which of the following is a sign of early problems in a foal?
a)lethargy and excessive sleep b)lameness c)nasal discharge or coughing d)patent urachus e)all of the above 
Please give, in order, the expected range T, P and R in foals?
 
 
 
A sepsis score under this number is low and makes septicemia unlikley?
 
Name an infectious cause of foal diarrhea? A non-infectious?
 
 
This pathogen, normally associated iwth pneumonia in young foals, sometimes causes diarrhea in older ones?
 
What is the most common cause of foal diarrhea?
 
C perfingens is more likely in foals ____ one month old, salmonella in foals _____ one month?
____, ____ 
What is the most significant risk factor for foal septicemia?
 
Any foal with these signs should be considered septic until proven otherwise? (Name one)
 
What is the positive predictive value of septicemia scoring?
 
All foals with clinical evidence of septicemia are assumed infected with this type of bacteria, even if the other class is isolated alone?
 
For initial therapy of septicemic foals, you treat with penicillin or ampicillin and an ____- or ____-______ _______
 
What do you risk when treating foals with fluoroquinolones, which limits their use to resistant cases?
 
Within what window of time can foals absorb antibodies?
 
In terms of specific gravity of colostrum, 1.050 is adequate, over ____ is excellent.
 
True or false: foals have a different hemoglobin structure than adult horses, which allows higher affinity for oxygen?
 
This condition is characterized by immune mediated destruction of RBCs in circulation of a foal by allo-antibodies of maternal origin from colostrum?
 
Name a way in which the dam might be previously sensitized to the RBC antigen that only the dad and foal have?
 
When looking at the 7 groups of independent rbcs, which factors are particularly antigenic?
 
What group of equids are ALL at risk of neonatal isoerythrolysis?
 
What does JFA test stand for?
In this test you test presuckle foal RBCs to colostrum to check for antibodies. You withhold coostrum if 1:16 or more for horses, 1:64 or more for mules. 
The major cross match compares donor ______ to recipient, _____
_____, ____ 
Between __ and ___ hours of life the signs of neonatal isoerythrolysis will begin.
 
True or false: with the peracute form of neonatal isoerythrolysis, sometimes the foal will be dead before it is icteric?
 
What is the more likely sign than icterus with acute neonatal isoerythrolysis?
 
With a PCV in the low teens, dropping rapidly, or signs of severe anemia what is indicated for neonatal isoerythrolysis?
 
This is the name for acute encephalopahty due to unconjugated, unbound bilirubin entering in brain tissue.
Secondary to neonatal isoerythrolysis. 
Name a sign that might be exhibited during stomach ulceration in a foal, based on the example given in lecture.
 
With grade 0 equine gastric squamous ulcer disease, what two things are absent?
______ and ________.These two things are present in grade 1 in patchy areas. Hint: the epithelium is intact throughout in grade 0, the mucosa is entirely intact in grade 1... 
True or false: In grade 2 you see variable numbers of erosions, but you only see ulcers on grade 3?
 
What distinguishes grade 4 from grade 3?
 
True or false: intense training or particularly irregular feeding, as well as certain diets or stress, cause grade 1 gastric ulceration?
 
What bacteria may be implicated in gastric ulceration of foals?
 
Ulcers result from an imbalance between aggressive and protective factors. Which one of these is aggressive?
a)PGE2 b)pepsin c)epidermal growth factor d)gastroduodenal motility e)mucosal blood flow and mucus layer 
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for gastric ulceration in foals (assuming proper parasite management and prevention)?
a)NSAID use b)intermittent feeding c)dwelling on pasture d)illness e)transport and competition 
How do you definitively diagnose gastric ulceration in horses?
 
Which of the following H2-receptor antagonists is no longer recommended for equine use?
a)ranitidine b)famotidine c)nizatidine d)cimetidine 
What is the active ingredient in the popular gastrogard paste?
Hint:An H+/K+ ATPase Proton Pump inhibitor 
Which of the following drugs is not a synthetic PG analogue?
a)misoprostol b)sucralfate c)enprostol d)arbaprostol 
Dummy foals, barkers, wanderers, victims of peripartum asphyxia syndrome or neonatal maladjustment syndrome are all synonymous with horses suffering from ___ ____ ____?
 
Glutamate and aspartate are examples of ______ ________ that accumulate in the CNS during HIE causing opening of ion channels with neurotoxic effect?
Due to impaired intra or post natal oxygenation. Risk factors include premature placental separation, dstocia, induction of parturition, cesarean section, maternal illness. 
Name a differential for HIE?
 
Which drug should be avoided in control of seizures during HIE?
a)xylzine b)phenobarbital c)diazepam d)none of the above 
If ______ is suspected, you should avoid the use of mannitol to reduce CNS edema?
 
True or false: prognosis is extremely poor, as less than 20% of dummy foals recover?
 
Name one of the top three most common causes of pruritic skin lesions in horses?
 
What is the most common cause of abnormal pigmentation in horses?
 
Which of the following is the least likely potential cause of scaling or crusting in horses? (all are valid)
a)ringworm (dermatophytosis) b)rain scald (dermatophilosis) c)chorioptic mange d)photosensitization e)lice infestation (pediculosis) 
Which of the following is the least likely cause of swelling, nodularit or tumours on equine skin? (all valid)
a)proudflesh b)warbles (hypodermiasis) c)melanoma d)aural plaques e)equine sarcoid 
Which of the following would not generally cause the formation of papules, pustules or vesicles on horse skin?
a)cutaneous habronemiasis b)aural plaque c)equine sarcoid d)papillomatosis e)chorioptic mange or ringworm 
True o false: pediculosis is most likely in late summer to early winter?
 
Of Werneckiella equi and Haematopinus asini, which is a sucking mite?
This sucking lice is the only one you'd treat with ivermection PO. 
The least likely sequelus of pediculosis?
a) alopecia b)scaling c)nodule formation d)lichenification e)rough hair coat 
Chorioptic mange is sometimes called Clyde itch due to it's tendency to affect what types of horses?
Highest populations in winter. 
How much of an interval would you leave between treatments for both chorioptes bovis and pediculosis?
 
The most common insect hypersensitivity in the horse is to these bugs.
Particularly in horses of Icelandic descent. 
What, normally is the distribution of dermatitis associated with cullicoides?
 
True or false: alopecia, scaling, crusting, self trauma, hyperkeratinization and longitudinal ridges may form with culicoides hypersensitivity?
 
What parasitic infestation am I most likely describing?
Lesions appear in winter, are pruritic and erythemic, there is some alopecia from self trauma, lichenification, scale or crust formation, and the lesions are all found in the lower limbs, especially below hocks on hind limb. The patient is a draft horse with heavy leg feathering 
Culicoides hypersensitivity is most likely to present ventrally in the South West of this province?
 
Why trichophyton spp is the most common isolate in equine dermatophytosis (ringworm)?
Hints: This variation was named by the department of redundancy department. The accusative conjugation of 'horse' in Latin is sweet, huh? The dermatophyte so itchy they named it twice to be bitchy.  
True or false: dermatophytosis is spread only by direct contact with carriers or affected animals?
 
How many weeks does it take for hair to regrow after ringworm infection?
Incubation 1-4 weeks, lesions expand for 4-8 weeks. 
Topical treatment with a 0.2% emulsion with this drug cures 50% of ringworm in 2 weeks.
75% after 3! 
True or false: ringworm is contagious?
 
What bacterial agent is the cause of superficial dermatitis due to excessive moisture and skin breakage in rain scalds?
Exudative and purulent in nature, the agent is gram positive facultative anaerobe which grows into parallel rows of coccoid zoospheres ('railroad tracks'). It forms raw bleeding ulcers under crust, with yellow-white-green pus on the undersurface. 
True or false: dematophilosis will spontaneously heal in 3-4 weeks if the horse is sheltered properly and protected from parasites?
 
The following are all part of the complex etiology of this ailment of the feet and lower limbs?
Dermatophilus congolensis, dermatophytosis, staph folliculitis, photosensitization, vasculitis, chorioptic mange, pemphigus foliaceus, allergic contact dermatitis. 
This most common seborrheic dermatosis of the horse occurs over the anterior surface of the 3rd metatarsal or metacarpal bones.
Rule outs are dermatophytosis, dermatophilosis. 
First treatments will make cannon hyperkeratosis look worse, but should be repeated initially every 2-3days. What lubricant could be used?
 
This is a recurrent non-seasonal skin disease of adult horses, caused by dead and ding O. cervicalis microfilariae.
Scaly, depigmented region with alopecia and variable pruritis, tends to affect face and ventral midline, withers, medial and prximal forelimbs and pectorals. 
What two drug classes would form your treatment plan for cutaneous oncocerciasis?
_____ and _____ 
This is the most common auto-immune skin disease of horses?
Usually starts on face/neck or limbs. Rapid spread. Painful, fissures form after crusting. Formation of auto-antibodies against a CAM (desmoglein-1), leading to acantholysis and intradermal clefts (bullae vesicles) 
What is the term for separation of epidermal cells?
 
Treatment with this drug class may give a false negative for pemphigus foliaceus
 
A false positive for pemphigus foliaceus may result from biopsy with this condition?
 
True or false: 14 days of corticosteroid therapy generally cures pemphigus foliaceus?
 
Nettle rash, hives and feed allergy are all synonymous with this medical term?
A type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. Rapidly appears and disappears, pits with pressure, overlying skin is normal, no alopecia. 
Name a drug you might use to treat urticaria?
 
True or false: urticaria may be a sequel to strangles?
 

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